Yes the topic of appropriation is tricky because the appropriator is often an individual and the appropriated is often a community of practice making work without an explicit author. Philip Glass’s work is an example of this. Classical music composers absolutely love sticking their name on musical works, which limits what those works can become, as well as limiting understanding of where those works came from.

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Yeah, unfortunately the ideas “pool” that I mentioned requires very idealized world and right now it would probably mostly give profits to those who have more power.

It’s a reach to say that all modal jazz derives from Gould’s “Pavane.” Miles Davis used that one passage for the chord progression to “So What,” and Coltrane used the melody for the A section of “Impressions,” but it doesn’t follow that all modal jazz flows straight out of those tunes. You certainly can’t derive all the ideas in their Dorian mode improvisation from Gould. They are as much informed by the blues and the static harmonies of African and Asian tradition. I read Coltrane’s modal playing as a fusion of late Romanticism, Hindustani classical tradition (he named his son Ravi!) and the blues. Same goes for Coltrane and Slonimsky: Coltrane learned a bunch of scale patterns and transpositions from that book, but Coltrane’s music is no more reducible to Slonimsky than Pixar is to the Lumière brothers.

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Sure, I agree with all that. I’m simply giving a few examples of how jazz is closely linked to other musics, and not sui generis. For some bizarre reason, this seems to ruffle feathers in this forum.

Please don’t stoop to ad hominem. It’s rude and disrespectful to the forum. I will respond to the substantive part of your post.

Yes, I agree, and alluded to that in the post you’re responding to.

Not sure about your “functionally orthogonal” claim, mainly because you don’t hypothesize the function for Debussy etc. I agree that this approach does increase chromaticism in the context of what jazz players were working with at the time. But there are many ways to introduce chromaticism, yet Coltrane chose to emphasize this one for a few years. My guess is that he simply liked the sound of it.

Absolutely not

It ruffles feathers because that’s not what you originally said…or implied, repeatedly. You’ve been pushing the idea that harmonic complexity in jazz derived (practically fully formed) from innovations which had already taken place in the classical world years prior.

It also ruffles feathers because we’re discussing the topic in context of white supremacy and it’s impact on generations of musicians across the country.

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I assume that people can follow the thread of discussion. I brought up the classical influences on jazz in response to an argument that seemed to place jazz harmony in a separate box. I ask if there is any major harmonic development in jazz that doesn’t have some precedent in composer music [insert your preferred term here]. No one has offered an example yet.

Even if we come up with one or two, my point stands–jazz harmony largely derives from existing music, the primary type of innovation coming in its adaptation for jazz performance. My point is not to diminish jazz–it’s been my life’s work; no one could respect it more than I do. My point is that jazz is an analytical category, and that most music we place in that category is profoundly influenced by music outside of that category.

The rude poster above (not you) implied that it is somehow improper to suggest that “white guys” did it first. Yet I have never mentioned race in this context. I will pose another challenge: What’s wrong with taking inspiration from other musicians? Why make the race of the inspiration the most salient feature of that artist?

To engage in race reduction when discussing jazz is a remnant of the Jim Crow era, particularly early 20th century primitivism. You can see it in jazz criticism of the 1920s, where black jazz musicians are presented as primitive untutored geniuses expressing their feelings naturally. The problem with this should be obvious. It diminishes the artist’s agency. It denies all the years of hard work and study he put in to be able to perform. Most significantly, it reproduces the racial ideology–the reduction of an artist’s humanity to his skin color.

It ruffles my feathers because I’m working inside the music academy, which is oppressively Eurocentric, and where it’s way too common to try to reduce jazz (and all other African-American music) to its European classical influences, however tenuous. I’m trying to deal with people who argue that rap comes from sprechtstimme, that turntablism comes from musique concréte, etc. These arguments have historically had a white supremacist ideological basis. I know you aren’t coming from that position at all, but it’s easy to misread you when you don’t qualify a statement like “modal jazz comes from Morton Gould.”

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I offered an example of a major harmonic practice in jazz that doesn’t a precedent in European classical music: the blues.

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After listing to the Shapero piece posted by @ElectricaNada it seems pretty likely the famous jazz tune is a cover (I didn’t check which piece was older, bit I’ll assume for arguments sake Shapero’s came first)

What about Monk though? I’m no classical buff, but those sounds to me are distinctly ‘jazz’. Not to mention all the microtonal blues stuff going on in some jazz recordings. I trust noone believes Charlie Parker was bending notes because he was a huge fan of Renaissance music pre-equal temperament… (@Ethan_Hein beat me to it)

I personally believe that music theory (the mathematical part) is something that was discovered, not invented. I play a lot of Ionian progressions, a lot of pentatonics and a lot of flattened major thirds. These sound ‘right’ for numerical reasons as well as cultural (I think!)

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I’m not sure about this, mainly because I’m not convinced that blues harmony is a separate thing in itself. Haven’t jazz musicians generally used the techniques they already were using in other songs to harmonize blues chromaticism? Or gone in the other direction, and composed new blues tunes to fit their preferred harmonies (eg, Bird blues)?

The most plausible explanation for blues harmony is that it’s a fusion of various West African musics adapted by enslaved people to be playable on European instruments. There is no precedent for it in European music before the Atlantic slave trade. There isn’t any literal precedent for it in any single African tradition, either; all evidence points to it originating in the US.

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Assigning race to music is another remnant of Jim Crow racial ideology.

Sure, but what is “blues harmony”? What distinguishes it from the harmony used in other jazz songs that are not blues? I don’t see any daylight between the two categories.

This is fascinating, but is there evidence that Coltrane copied it (or even knew about it)? Shapero was a student of Slonimsky’s, so it’s possible that both Shapero and Coltrane applied Slonimsky pattern 646 in similar ways, that this is a case of parallel invention rather than a direct influence.

I say this because jazz scholars tried to overcorrect for the idea of naive and untutored “primitivism” by hunting for classical influences and sometimes got carried away with it. For example, at the time he wrote his epic Coltrane bio, Lewis Porter attributed the B section of “Impressions” to Ravel, but has since walked that back, he now thinks the similarity could be a coincidence.

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This is my problem…why do we absolve for the sake of civility? If someone walks out supremacist tropes, gets called out for it and continues, why should we coddle them?

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It’s improper if it’s not provably true

If you followed the thread of discussion above you’d know that posting within this thread places all your comments in the context of race.

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Since you’re obviously referring to me, kindly identify the “supremacist tropes” I have “walked out” and been “called out” for. There may have been some reading comprehension challenges that need correcting.

I assume that people can follow the thread of discussion. As you said above…the burden of proof is on you.

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There may be some epistemological differences that inhibit communication. I begin from the proposition that race is an ideology that is used to divide people, and that it is a logical error to reduce individual artists to their skin color. It is a logical error to assign race to a musical category such as jazz.

When I point out that jazz is profoundly influenced by other music, I don’t see that as in any way diminishing jazz or jazz artists. What’s wrong with being influenced by your predecessors? This is normal humanity. How could it possibly be otherwise?

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